For the rationally challenged, no explanation is possible.
Let's just say that when the intent is there to kill civilians totally detached from hostilities, moral equivalency ceases.
Don't bother re-wording the question; I don't waste my time on grammar school debaters.
You mean like TV station in Belgrade (with comparable number of civilians casualties to the present bombing)? Or the bombing of the passenger train (also with comparable number of casualties) and followed by the lying denials and doctored films ?