How was it so much different than the inflation that the French, British and Italians felt after the war aside from the fact that the Germans did not have a stable government until Hitler came to power? Versailles did not cause the bulk of their economic problems. Their unworkable government system that prevailed after the collapse of their monarchy was what sent Germany on the road to ruin.
As to the 'hubris' shown by the French, how was it different than the hubris shown by the Germans several decades earlier? The French reclaimed territory lost in the 1870s and rightfully hated the Germans for the destruction and death that occurred primarily on French soil during WWI. That state of affairs would have existed regardless of US involvement and to blame the US is asinine.
I have no sympathy for the fate of the German Empire, and nothing that resulted from their defeat caused Hitler any more than what would have not happened otherwise. Germany was an industrial giant trapped in a feudal economic and political system. They were ripe for revolution and Hitler was nothing but another socialist revolutionary.
The early 20th century was a time when military/totalitarian government was on the rise in areas that had no history of self-government. Germany, Japan, Italy, and yes, even Russia. They all reached the outer limits of what tradition monarchies could endure in a modern world. To maintain the power of the elite, they needed a ‘secular’, totalitarian regime to provide ‘order’ and protect their ‘special interests’. Germany was simply the largest and most economically advanced of the breed. But organically, there was no major difference in what happened in Germany, Russia, Japan or Italy. Their economies and military capabilities outpaced their political ability to deal with that power.
This shows an extreme lack of understanding abut what the treaty demanded and how it was enforced. I suggest you do a bit more reading on the subject.