Had He meant Peter, there are so many ways He could have expressed the idea more clearly in Greek.The Gospel of Matthew was written in Aramaic, not Greek, and it was quite clear, if you will read my previous post.
God bless.
Actually, I've studied the issue for decades. Yours is pretty much a dead position. What we have is a Greek Gospel of Matthew. That is the only canonical version, and it does not read for the most part like "translation" Greek. And certainly, for the Christian, no exegesis can be based on a putative text or a hypothetical original (what Jesus supposedly "would have said in Aramaic), when the God-breathed and authoritative version we have is in Greek.
Glad I could help.
Dan