Before about 600 or so there were no muslims. So that alone has to limit the "always" to a certain period of time. That would be the time from the inception of Islam until 1896.
Before about 600 or so there were no muslims. So that alone has to limit the "always" to a certain period of time. That would be the time from the inception of Islam until 1896. That's propbably the worst defence I've seen of anybody in my life. You obviously know exactly what I mean't when he unequivocally stated there was nothing but harmony between Jews and Islam (which in the context of Israel means the ARAB ISLAMICS) UNTIL zionism came along. Now, do you consider him on this point to either be stupid, or dishonest?