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To: gnarledmaw
In 1998, Wisconsin voters amended the state Constitution to protect the right of law-abiding citizens to posses and use firearms.

So, am I to infer from this sentence in the article that prior to 1998, the state Constitution did not include the right to keep and bear arms that is in the US Constitution? Do states have the right to deny their citizens any rights that are in the US Constitution? If a right enumerated and guaranteed in the US Constitution is not in a State Constutution, then a resident of that state doesn't have the same constitutional rights as US citizens in other states?

I simply am not clear on this concept.

24 posted on 01/18/2002 3:02:57 PM PST by .38sw
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To: .38sw
The State could not forbid possesion against the 2nd Amendment--however, the State's amendment includes the phrase 'for any legal purpose,' which makes it clear that the 2nd Amendment is not for duckhunters (as Schumer & Co. would have you believe.)
33 posted on 01/18/2002 5:42:01 PM PST by ninenot
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