I looked at the survey in the link. I did a search on "Abstract" to find the relevant section and found nothing. Perhaps you could bring over the definitions in question.
But I did find something else. There is a huge contradiction in two parts of the study from the link. Here's the first part:
The rate of homosexual versus heterosexual child sexual abuse is staggering. Psychologist, Eugene Abels data of 150.2 boys abused per male homosexual offender finds no equal (yet) in heterosexual violations of 19.8 girls.[88]
So if the average homosexual pedophile molests 150 boys and there were 8 million boys molested, that makes about 53,000 gay molesters in this country. But then, later in the survey, Reisman makes this statement:
Of 90 million adult males:
§ ~9% of heterosexual men (~86-88 million) victimize 8 million (25%) girls.[93]
§ ~100%+ homosexual men (~2 million) victimize 6 to 8 million (17% to 24%) boys.[94]
Reisman is claiming that 100 percent (or plus????) victimize 6 to 8 million boys - When that statement is directly contradicted by a previous statement in the survey.
That is my issue here. I agree there is a serious problem with gays molesting kids - but fighting this issue is not advanced with poor scholarship and contradictory assumptions.Reisman falls for the trap of trying to insinuate that all gays are pedophiles, and that's the problem I have with her study.
You should have read the next paragraph were she shows that the 100% needs to be adjusted downward.