[Apogee]

The "Spanish" inquisition took place in an area that was profoundly influenced by Muslim thought and action. Could it be that they learned such techniques from their former oppressors? (not that I am defending them, if they read their scripture they should have found it unjustifiable).

[Publius6961]

The "Spanish" inquisition took place in an area that was profoundly influenced by Muslim thought and action. Could it be that they learned such techniques from their former oppressors? (not that I am defending them, if they read their scripture they should have found it unjustifiable).

You hit the nail right on the head.
Remember that Spain, as a country, was being born at the same time.
Indeed, evicting their oppresors was what accelerated the union of the major Spanish kingdoms.

And having been under Muslim rule for 700 years must have had some influence on how they solved the problem of their oppresors.

[Marduk]

"The "Spanish" inquisition took place in an area that was profoundly influenced by Muslim thought and action. Could it be that they learned such techniques from their former oppressors?"

The Spanish Inquisition had nothing to do with a contamination of Christianity by an Islamic mentality. In fact, the reverse is the truth. The reason for the Inquisition was to protect Christinaity from contamination by non-Christian elements that were attempting to subvert it from within.

In 1492 Muslims and Jews were expelled. Muslims for being the oppressors and the Jews for collaborating with the Muslims. They were expelled for being disloyal groups. They had the choice of leaving or converting.

The problem was that many converted in name only, secretly continued to practice their old faith and remained disloyal. This is what led to the Inquisition. It was about protecting the Christian religion from contamination by pseudo-Christians operating within its ranks.