So i understand this... If you violate the RICO statute, which explains what is “unlawful”, wouldn’t an unlawful act constitute a violation of law and would therefore be a crime? Or is committing an unlawful act as defined by a recognized statutes own definition, a null and void act on principle because there’s no crime by law?
That depends upon the wide variation in the definition of, What is a judge?
Leftist judges "think" that they are not obligated to obey the law.
Rather, they "think" that have the neo-communist authority to economically, politically, socially, and spiritually judge - all in a god-like blast of power. And, as we now see in the news, leftist judges "practically" nullify criminal statutes.
Meanwhile, technically, "an unlawful action constitutes a violation of law," but that violation may not be a punishable crime - instead, it may be a wrong with no punishment.
'Ception: Hillary Clinton got out of jail free (in effect re document and info security violations), and other leftists have, because of the No Criminal Intent escape clause that leftist attorneys invoke (if a person can manage to find, from where that magic originates?!).