In post 24 I asked a question regarding the following words in post 4 quoting the Tenth Amendment: “The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people.” (This was offered in support of the position that “The states had an absolute right to withdraw from the union…because of the clear language of the 10th amendment to the constitution…”. Note that the position did not address “the people”.)
My question was: “Does that mean the people of a municipality can, on their own say so, secede from the county and state the municipality is in or that the people of a county in a state can, on their own say so, secede from the state or from the United States?”
In post 150 (which I believe you can track back to post 24) you wrote “Counties aren’t mentioned in the text of the 10th Amendment.” That’s true. It’s also true that counties are populated by people.
Can it be taken from the rest of your post 150 that your answer to my question above is “yes” since “the counties are subordinate to the state and the people”?
No I think I showed by example I gave the opposite.