No you aren’t misrepresenting me. The constitution does say that Justices serve during “good behavior”, so I infer that Congress could if it wished specify what constitutes “good behavior”. In practice this specification has only occurred by impeachment of behavior considered not good, and the 1804 impeachment of Justice Samuel Chase established a precedent that conviction requires criminal conduct.
>so I infer that Congress could if it wished specify what constitutes “good behavior<
Then lets say someone filed suit on the new good behavior statute and it made it to SCOTUS. SCOTUS rules it unconstitutional. Now where are we?
No crime has been committed by the supremes, they cannot be impeached over it. Now what?
EC