The entire premise is wrong, but assume that reparation is to place the injured party in a position of financial indifference. That is, what sum of money leaves the plaintiff indifferent to the absence or presence of the event. I did such calculations as an expert witness over a period of 40 years, using my Ph.D. in economics as the basis of my testimony. I did the same for blacks in the US by comparing wage rates in the three African nations that exported slaves to the US with the average wage rate of blacks in the US. I then did a present value analysis for just over 150 years. It turns out,
blacks owe non-blacks in the US just over $640,000 each.
My question is: What line of reasoning was used to arrive at a number wrong by more than $1.84million?