Congress referred it to DOJ which does have executive powers to execute an arrest, albeit in this case these powers are being abused.
“Congress referred it to DOJ which does have executive powers to execute an arrest, albeit in this case these powers are being abused.”
Isn’t it the situation really that Congress refers a refusal to obey a subpoena to the justice department, who then ask the judge involved to hold a show-cause hearing to see if the refuser is to be held in contempt of court and fined/jailed for that, or if a bench warrant instead is to be issued to detain the refuser and physically bring him to court (or to jail, until he agrees to appear in court)??? The refuser has the opportunity to appear at the show-cause contempt hearing and confront his accusers and make his defense. So how can the Justice Dept. (via FBI) simply arrest him, as if he’s already been judged guilty by the LEGISLATIVE body??? Something is not right here.
Anyone???