And the former judges were appointed by the communist regime, and was amenable to another agenda. So, what's the difference?
In many other EU countries (eg Sweden) the judges in the highest court are appointed directly by the government, and that is not considered either illegal or political play by the EU Courts. The real reason this has caused a problem in the case of Poland, is because the Polish electorate has been utterly deplorable (yes, sarcasm) and elected politicians that do not adhere to the liberal-socialist agenda of the EU.
...were amenable to...
(Always read through what you’ve written before posting.)