So, then the question remains, Cortes’ assertions aside, what is the proportion of genuinely Biden-only to genuinely Trump-only ballots (where only the Presidential race was voted on) in Georgia — no disputes in frickin’ MAINE, as far as I know — compared to the Dem-to-GOP proportion in most Presidential election years?
RE: what is the proportion of genuinely Biden-only to genuinely Trump-only ballots (where only the Presidential race was voted on) in Georgia
Here’s what we know as per this report:
https://news.yahoo.com/georgia-gop-chairman-citing-biden-133908310.html
(EXCERPT)
“There were unusually large numbers of people who voted only for Joe Biden and in no other election,” David Shafer, chairman of the Georgia Republican Party, told National Review. “We don’t know what that means. We don’t know if it’s an irregularity or if it’s just evidence that there is support for Republicans down the ticket.”
Democratic Senate candidate Jon Ossoff received just shy of 100,000 fewer votes than Biden. Republican incumbent Sen. David Perdue received about 800 more votes than Trump.
(End Excerpt)
What the statement above does not tell us is this -— were there ballots WITH NO OTHER VOTES IN THEM ( local or senate or congressional ) but only a mark for Biden or Trump?
If the answer is yes, by how much did Biden win in such “President-only” marked ballots?
If it’s just a few hundreds, maybe we can say it isn’t unusual.
But if it is by nearly a hundred thousand, then there is cause for suspicion of pre-designed voting.
How can we tell without an audit? Georgia never did one, all they did was a recount.