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To: Steely Tom
Is it legal for a judge to be VINDICTIVE against a defendant?

It could be viewed as impeachable misbehavior on the part of the judge. IMHO it is.

51 posted on 07/09/2020 12:45:51 PM PDT by Rapscallion
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To: Rapscallion
Two phrases come to mind...

The consent of the governed. Without it there's no legitimacy. I guess it's a little bit like pornography...I may not be a lawyer, but I recognize BS when I see it. This is outrageous.

The Rule of Law. Not the rule of lawyers. Something for these comfortable, arrogant office holders to consider...Rule of Law is not just to protect the people from the government (office holders), it's here to protect the government from the people.

If there is no rule of law, then those who hold office and work for the government have no claim to the protection of law. If we cannot count upon the government for justice, if we understand that if you want justice, whatever you do, don't involve the government...their quality of work life will take a sharp negative turn.

145 posted on 07/09/2020 2:36:30 PM PDT by gogeo (It isn't just time to open America up again: It's time to be America again.)
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