Navigation act of 1817 only required cargos between American ports to be carried by an American flagged ship.
A ship load of shoes, out of Boston bound for New Orleans had to carried by an American ship. A load of cotton out o New Orleans bound for Boston had to be carried by an American ship. The law affected everyone equally.
It in no way limited international commerce between the Southern States and their customers in Europe.
How did the Warehousing act adversely affect Southern Commerce
It "only" did a whole lot of things that resulted in the NorthEast controlling all the traffic.
The law affected everyone equally.
The Northeast owned virtually all of the ships, so no, it did not affect everyone equally. It created a defacto subsidy for Northeastern shipping.
It in no way limited international commerce between the Southern States and their customers in Europe.
It most certainly did. Almost all the ships were in the hands of Northeaster shippers, and they set their prices just below what would have to be paid if all the fines and penalties for using non-American ships would have cost.
If it had no effect on costs, then why did they do it? It seems to me quite clear that they did it precisely because it forced importers/exporters to use American shipping, and the vast bulk of which was controlled from New York.
It also created a packet shipping industry between ports that was wholly controlled by the same group of shippers in the New York area.
How did the Warehousing act adversely affect Southern Commerce
I no longer recall. This aspect was thrashed out in a discussion a year or so ago, and I would have to go find that discussion again to jog my memory. It was a lesser effect than the Navigation act of 1817, so I didn't focus on it.
The point is, the lack of a majority in Congress made the wealth producing South the plaything of those powerful interests that had acquired control of congress. The South became the piggy bank for Northern "Mercantilist" policy, and they had insufficient votes to stop it.