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To: FLT-bird
The only imports that were protected were those from where they had previously been allowed to be traded across state lines. The African slave trade was still banned.

Did it specifically protect slave imports or didn't it?

and for some strange reason you left out Article I section 2

“Congress shall also have power to prohibit the introduction of slaves from any State not a member of, or Territory not belonging to, this Confederacy.”

I didn't leave it out. Since the Confederate Congress never prohibited it then it really didn't come in to play.

Nope! As I showed, a proposal to make their admission impossible was voted down.

LOL! Well if you can't answer the question then you can't answer the question.

OF COURSE my description is valid. You really are trying to spin here if you’re claiming that Article IV section 2 clause 3 a “person held to service or labor” was not a fugitive slave clause. Everybody called it exactly that. Because it was. The 3/5ths clause of the US Constitution does not specifically say “slave” but everybody knows that’s exactly what it meant. Really poor attempt at spin on your part here.

I'm trying to spin here? You take a clause that applies to any fugitive fleeing for any crime and relabel it to apply to a single situation.

No it didn’t. It allowed for non slaveholding states to be admitted.

You really need to read the Confederate Constitution some time. Under that no Confederate state could prohibit slavery within its borders. So non-slave states were a legal impossibility.

Firstly, the provision against bills of attainder does not necessarily mean a confederate state could not choose to abolish slavery within its borders.

Which has what to do with this discussion?

Secondly, any state could of course leave the CSA at any time.

Of course they could.

Yes there is. It says only revenue tariffs and not protective tariffs are allowed. A revenue tariff does not allow for higher than a 10% rate.

Leaving aside for a moment your claim that the Confederate Constitution specifically prohibited rates above 10 percent, if your latest claim is correct then how could the Confederate Congress pass a tariff law with rates as high as 25%? Can you explain that?

Tariff of the Confederate States of America Approved by Congress, May 21, 1861

The constitution said a bill could only be about one thing and that must be expressed in the title. ie no riders.

Article I, Section 7, Clause 1: " All bills for raising revenue shall originate in the House of Representatives; but the Senate may propose or concur with amendments, as on other bills."

Their objections went way beyond slavery.

Of course they did.

161 posted on 01/12/2019 4:25:16 AM PST by DoodleDawg
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To: DoodleDawg

did it protect slave imports or didn’t it?

It kept the status quo ante. The African slave trade as well as slave trading with the nearby Caribbean was still banned.


I didn’t leave it out. Since the Confederate Congress never prohibited it then it really didn’t come in to play.

It was part of the Constitution. Of course it was relevant to the topic.


LOL! Well if you can’t answer the question then you can’t answer the question.

Oh I answered it. I even provided a source. You just claimed that it would have been impossible without support.


I’m trying to spin here? You take a clause that applies to any fugitive fleeing for any crime and relabel it to apply to a single situation.

YES! You’re trying to spin here. Everybody then and still now calls it a fugitive slave clause because that’s exactly what it was. Who do you think the vast majority of such “fugitives” from labor were? and Oh by the way...its not just fugitives from crime. Its also fugitives from labor.


You really need to read the Confederate Constitution some time. Under that no Confederate state could prohibit slavery within its borders. So non-slave states were a legal impossibility.

I’ve read it and disagree with your conclusion. I also note that any state could secede from the CSA at any time. There was absolutely no dispute about a state’s right to do so as indeed there wasn’t in the US until Lincoln.


Leaving aside for a moment your claim that the Confederate Constitution specifically prohibited rates above 10 percent, if your latest claim is correct then how could the Confederate Congress pass a tariff law with rates as high as 25%? Can you explain that?

Yes. That along with several other things were emergency war measures. They also seized all sorts of property for national defense purposes. Revenue Tariff means maximum 10%


Article I, Section 7, Clause 1: “ All bills for raising revenue shall originate in the House of Representatives; but the Senate may propose or concur with amendments, as on other bills.”

“Another important limitation on the legislative power appearing in the Confederate Constitution was the single subject rule a requirement that each bill relate to only one subject which should be expressed in the bill’s title.
The rule was proposed by a Louisiana delegate Duncan Kenner, but it had numerous antecedents in state constitutions. Its main object was to prevent legislative logrolling, but the single subject rule also operated to strengthen the executive by preventing Congress from adding rider amendments to appropriations bills and other important measures for the purpose of defeating the presidential veto power (a common practice in the present-day United
States}.”

https://www.researchgate.net/publication/287567479_The_Constitution_of_the_Confederate_States_of_America_1861

The Confederate Congress could with a 2/3rds super majority vote to add an appropriation to a bill. But of course the President also had a line item veto. They also added the 2/3rds super majority requirement for departmental spending and added much tougher audit requirements for government spending.


164 posted on 01/12/2019 7:33:36 AM PST by FLT-bird
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