Then why ore there no mass shootings in which the perpetrator(s) were not primed with psychoactive drugs?
Why were there no such shootings before the release of psychotropic drugs to deal with abnormal behaviors?
“Then why ore there no mass shootings in which the perpetrator(s) were not primed with psychoactive drugs?”
We have no idea which shooters may have been on psychoactive drugs and which were not.
“Why were there no such shootings before the release of psychotropic drugs to deal with abnormal behaviors?”
Mass murder did exist prior to the advent of psychoactive drugs.