MCF wrote:
“U.S. Constitution, Article IV, Section 3, paragraph 1:
New States may be admitted by the Congress into this Union; but no new State shall be formed or erected within the Jurisdiction of any other State; nor any State be formed by the Junction of two or more States, or Parts of States, without the Consent of the Legislatures of the States concerned was well as of the Congress.
It is doubtful that the Legislature & Congress would go along with the break up of California. So this ballot initiative means nothing.”
Given that the US Congress wouldn’t agree, and the governor is flouting federal immigration law, does this mean that, if the proposition passes in November, that Calif would then be in a state of rebellion and secession from the US?
Is it bluster and mind twaddle for the progs, or are they really that stupid given at some point is this succession almost sedition and this will have to be quelled with military force? Do they really want to go their? Tell me where I am wrong in my analysis and I will stand corrected....
Approving a referendum to divide up the state has nothing to do with whether or not California is in rebellion. It is one of the constitutional steps necessary for such a division to occur, and therefore is wholly constitutional.
The state's reaction when congress refuses to grant its consent might determine whether or not the state is in a state of rebellion, though.