And you base that on what?
Economic reality at the time. Why do you think Northern Manufacturers were screaming for protective tariffs? It was because France and especially Britain had first mover advantages. They had economies of scale already in place and could thus afford to undercut northern manufacturers on price.
They did. The Southern Planters had to charter the ships to sail to British ports. Sailing back empty would have been a huge waste. They needed to fill the holds with something to make the return journey economically viable. They filled the holds naturally, with manufactured goods.
So you have no response. Adams is a tax expert by the way
You really need to read sources other than the Chief PC Revisionist McPherson. Who cares where a ship docks? Who pays? Does the port pay? Does the state pay out of the goodness of its heart? Or does the owner of the goods pay a tariff? I think we both know the answer to that.
I never said the imported goods were only for Southerners. They were obviously to be sold to anybody. Shipping at that time was routed through New York primarily. The business of shipbuilders, factors (ie wholesalers), Insurers, and Bankers was based heavily on Southern export goods. New England exported next to nothing and Midwestern grain was only very lately becoming a valuable export.
So ya got nothing.
Why do you think Northern Manufacturers were screaming for protective tariffs? It was because France and especially Britain had first mover advantages. They had economies of scale already in place and could thus afford to undercut northern manufacturers on price.
For the same reason why manufacturers are screaming for tariffs today. To protect their bottom line, ensure they made money, and keep foreign competition from undercutting them. And yes, it helped promote business growth in the U.S.
They did. The Southern Planters had to charter the ships to sail to British ports. Sailing back empty would have been a huge waste. They needed to fill the holds with something to make the return journey economically viable. They filled the holds naturally, with manufactured goods.
That is by far the dumbest theory I've heard from you to date. And that's saying a lot.
So you have no response. Adams is a tax expert by the way
None is necessary. Adams, like you, makes a lot of claims without supporting sources.
You really need to read sources other than the Chief PC Revisionist McPherson.
How about "Statement Showing the Amount of Revenue Collected Annually", Executive Document No.33, 36th Congress, 1st Session, 1860" as quoted in "Lifeline of the Confederacy: Blockade Running During the Civil War" by Stephen Wise? Is that source OK?
Who cares where a ship docks? Who pays? Does the port pay? Does the state pay out of the goodness of its heart? Or does the owner of the goods pay a tariff? I think we both know the answer to that.
It matters. Tariffs are paid where the goods enter the U.S. They are paid by the importer, and no doubt the price is passed on to the consumer. So back to the original question: if 84% to 87% of all imported goods were destined for Southern consumers then why did 95% of imported goods go to Northern ports instead of to their intended consumers?
I never said the imported goods were only for Southerners.
You said the South paid 84 to 87 percent of the tariffs. If they paid the tariffs then the goods were obviously intended for them.
Shipping at that time was routed through New York primarily.
And yet the same source I quoted earlier showed that over 90% of all cotton exports left through Southern ports - $107 million from New Orleans alone. Why weren't they routed through New York?