Replies

Why didn’t they buy American then?

Why didn’t they buy Northern? Because it was more expensive and not as good.

They also charged consumers in the north MORE for them than did Europe. Tariffs were applied equally North and South. Northern consumers paid the same inflated prices for domestically produced goods and the same prices inflated by tariffs for imported goods that Southerners did. They did not hit the South any harder than they did the North.

This is false. They were not doing the exporting. The Southern states were responsible for the overwhelming majority of exports...and thus the overwhelming majority of imports since the cash crops were exchanged for manufactured goods the Southern owners of those cash crops having already paid for the ships. So when those manufactured goods were shipped back in, it was they who were hit especially hard by the tariffs.....the Northern states then saw fit to apportion themselves 80% of all federal expenditures for corporate subsidies and infrastructure projects.

As Adams notes, the South paid an undue proportion of federal revenues derived from tariffs, and these were expended by the federal government more in the North than the South: in 1840, the South paid 84% of the tariffs, rising to 87% in 1860. They paid 83% of the $13 million federal fishing bounties paid to New England fishermen, and also paid $35 million to Northern shipping interests which had a monopoly on shipping from Southern ports. The South, in effect, was paying tribute to the North. When in the Course of Human Events: Arguing the Case for Southern Succession Charles Adams

Why didn’t they buy Northern? Because it was more expensive and not as good.

And you base that on what?

The Southern states were responsible for the overwhelming majority of exports...and thus the overwhelming majority of imports since the cash crops were exchanged for manufactured goods the Southern owners of those cash crops having already paid for the ships.

You really want us to believe that the U.S. and Europe operated on a barter economy? Really? Your claims are getting crazier and crazier with every post.

"When in the Course of Human Events" right? Can Tommy DiLorenzo be far behind?

So let me ask you this. If the South paid 84% of the tariffs then why do Congressional records show that in the year before the rebellion close to 95% of all tariff revenues were collected in Northern ports? Why did New York alone collect 9 times as much as the 10 busiest Southern ports combined? If 84% of the imports were destined for Southern consumers why did only 5% of them go to Southern ports? Can you explain that? Those same records show that 90% of all cotton exports left from Southern ports. If it was a barter economy as you say, why did those Southern cotton growers ride the ship to England, swap their cotton for those manufactured goods, and then bring them back to New York? Can you explain that?