There's part of the disagreement illustrating there was no unified belief among them.
Which one do you cite as authoritative when they disagree?
We do pretty much what I heard Hank Hanegraaf do years ago (pre-Eastern Orthodox conversion) when he hosted a debate on Calvinism vs. Arminianism. His point was repeatedly that it was an "in-house debate", and that we should understand that differing Reformers had differing views on the matter.
Where the Church Fathers are unanimous, we hold to the position vehemently and say it would be rash or heretical to assert the contrary. Where they may disagree, we tread more carefully and try to take the most sensible position. Like Augustine had some rather tough views on the fate of unbaptized babies that are not at all reflective of the Greek Fathers...I believe the consensus even in the West has tended toward the Greek position.
The Church Fathers were not infallible. But they are authoritative.