. . . which obviously does not require a popular vote to be conducted. And if it does not even require a popular vote at all, it can hardly be construed to allow any Federal court challenge at all to the decisions which come from the states. And that makes Bush v. Gore bad law [SCOTUS should have punted, IMHO on the basis that Florida's Electors had, under FL law, already cast their ballots (for Bush)].But if Federal courts have no jurisdiction over the selection of Electors, it follows that Federal courts would have no jurisdiction over how the election within a state is conducted. Hence, the legislature has plenary authority to determine who is, and who is not, on the ballot. State legislatures should pass laws enforcing things like
by keeping people like SoS Clinton (who was scoffing up money from foreign princes like it was going out of style) off their ballots for Electors. It wouldnt be necessary to get all states to do so; it would only take a few purple states doing that to make electing a scofflaw like Hillary too hard."
- Article 1 Section 9:
- No title of nobility shall be granted by the United States: and no person holding any office of profit or trust under them, shall, without the consent of the Congress, accept of any present, emolument, office, or title, of any kind whatever, from any king, prince, or foreign state.
I'd like to know why that was "bad law," as it was no law at all. If the Florida legislature had a statewide vote for electors, then recounts should be statewide, too. The Florida Supreme Court went rogue when it allowed only the heavily Democrat counties to be recounted, and SCOTUS stopped that.
-PJ
No State shall, without the Consent of Congress, lay any duty of Tonnage, keep Troops, or Ships of War in time of Peace, enter into any Agreement or Compact with another State, or with a foreign Power, or engage in War, unless actually invaded, or in such imminent Danger as will not admit of delay.