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To: anton

“...Why did she think she had jurisdiction over the perp? Since when do medical persons have any right at all to resist orders from the police?...”

since 1776


90 posted on 09/02/2017 3:16:32 AM PDT by vooch (America First Drain the Swamp)
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To: vooch

Sadly, in our haste to be freedom loving we have lost the ability to actually study the law. Your post is the best example from the 5 or 6 criticizing my statement.

Lay persons think that it is the order from LE that has to be lawful. Not so.

It is the lawfulness of the LEO that determines whether a citizen has to comply.

Most of you above are too stupid to get the difference. Well meaning, but stupid.

Let me see if this will help.

If a police officer is properly sworn in, on duty in the jurisdiction of his employment, directing traffic, he is acting lawfully.

And, if he instructs you to drive over the double yellow line (which is illegal) or turn off your headlights, or step out of the car leaving it on the highway in a lane of traffic, he is giving you a “lawful order.” Now, his orders may turn out to be wrong later, but it is not the substance of the order that a citizen may test. It is the authority of the office to give the order.

OK, all cleared up folks?


110 posted on 09/02/2017 5:02:39 AM PDT by anton
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