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To: Bull Snipe
That was because the Federal Government had no Constitutional means to end slavery in any state were it was legal per Scott V. Sanford.

So what was the "constitutional means" by which it was ended in the South? Presumably if Lincoln had the power to end slavery, he also had the power to create slavery.

So did Lincoln have the power to enslave the "rebels"? Could he put chains on these people and make them work the cotton fields?

From whence came his constitutional power to end what was a legal practice and one that was explicitly protected by the US Constitution? Where did this man get such power?

From what clause of the constitution did his power to do this emanate?

Lincoln worked quite hard to get Missouri, Kentucky, Maryland and Delaware to end the institution, but he could not force them to end slavery.

He bribed them and threatened them. He also deliberately refused to allow the Southern states to vote against this amendment. They were required to vote "yes" for this amendment because they had guns pointed at their heads.

This was a coerced amendment that did not accurately represent the free will of the citizens of those states at this time.

It was but one more example of extra constitutional dictatorial powers being used by a man that controlled the Armies of the North.

So you are going to talk to me about the US Constitution? Really?

112 posted on 05/26/2017 12:13:58 PM PDT by DiogenesLamp ("of parents owing allegiance to no other sovereignty.")
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To: DiogenesLamp

Simply, Lincoln had no authority to end slavery in any state where it was legal. Cajoling and bribery were acceptable legally. They did not work. As CinC he could try to end slavery in the states that had seceded from the Union and were in a state of rebellion against the United states. Slaves supported the Confederate war effort. Slaves built the vast earth works around Petersburg under Warwick river in Virginia. Slaves were necessary for the Southern War effort. That was a legitimate effort on Lincoln’s part to win the war. As far a “Constitutional power is concerned. The Constitution designates the President of the United States as the Commander in Chief of the United States Armed Forces in war time. Lincoln used that authority granted by the Constitution to conduct the war.
Now did Lincoln follow the Constitution to the Letter. No, He violated the rules of Habeas corpus in early in the war. But Lincoln adheared to the ruling of the Supreme Court in Scott V. Sanford. Show me where he deviated from that ruling. What amendment did Lincoln did he force the loyal Union states where slavery was legal to vote on?


125 posted on 05/26/2017 2:37:15 PM PDT by Bull Snipe
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