Can anyone here demonstrate via the US CONSTITUTIOPN where an inferior Court CREATED by CONgress has ANY AUTHORITY WHATSOEVER WHEN A PARTY IS A STATE???
Article 3 Section 2 US Constitution
In all Cases affecting Ambassadors, other public Ministers and Consuls, and those in which a State shall be Party, the supreme Court shall have original Jurisdiction. In all the other Cases before mentioned, the supreme Court shall have appellate Jurisdiction, both as to Law and Fact, with such Exceptions, and under such Regulations as the Congress shall make.
ARREST AND JAIL THE WHOLE BUNCH
I know! Sickening Huh?! Why even bother to have an election for president or senators congressman when these asses have more power and control the trashing of the constitution by making up their own laws and enforcing the people to abide by their rules! This is so F!
The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction when a State is a party, but Congress has given the States an option of filing in a District Court. So the State of Washington could have filed this case in the Supreme Court, but chose to file in a District Court. This was likely done because the District Court and the Ninth Circuit would be easy wins, while the Supreme Court could go either way.