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To: mlo

rmlew has it largely right in #44. You are partially right in that Israel became “Isreal” post-WWII however that was when they DIVIDED (partitianed) the “Jewish National Home” into Trans-Jordan and Israel in 1947.

FYI the “Jewish National Home” would be defined in 1917 as:
“All ‘depopulated’ and ‘wasted’ land, delineated as ‘Palestine’ or ‘South Syria’—east of the Jordan River to the Hejaz (Arabia) and west of the Jordan River to the Mediterranean Sea—in 1917 would be pledged by League of Nations mandate to ‘close settlement’ by Jews for their ‘Jewish National Home.’” It was formally mandated to the British by 52 of the governments assembled at the League of Nations on July 24, 1922.


45 posted on 12/27/2016 7:12:23 PM PST by egfowler3 (Vacancy)
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To: egfowler3
"You are partially right in that Israel became “Isreal” post-WWII..."

That's not just "partially right".

I'd say you have it backwards. It is partially right in that there was a homeland established in 1917. But that in no way was the founding of Israel. It is "largely right", if not entirely right, that Israel was created by the UN after WWII, as I said.

46 posted on 12/27/2016 7:50:24 PM PST by mlo
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