Can anyone explain why the USA would be obligated to pay any money owed to the SHAH’s government which no longer exists??
The USA has not had diplomatic relations with Iran since 1979, when the evil Mullahs kicked out the Shah. The $400 million plus (who decided the interest) $1.3 billion “interest” is said to be from an arms purchase paid for by the Shah’s govt but never delivered due to the Iranian revolution.
So did we actually “owe” money to a revolutionary govt we have no diplomatic relations with???? And who decided that we also “owe” $1.3 billion in “interest” in addition to the $400 million principal???
Presumably this is an outcome of the supposed “nuclear deal” which Iran never signed and does not consider itself bound by???
Of courses taqiyya allows certain practices to be used against the infidel. Wonder if this is action is justified by taqiyya?