Then why did Jesus even say what he did at John 20:22-23? Why confer this on his disciples at all? Did the command dissolve once the disciples died?
What about James 5:16 “Therefore, confess your sins to one another and pray for one another, that you may be healed”?
Catholic Confession/Penance/Reconciliation certainly complements the the verses you cited.
Could the answer to your question be:
"The meaning of the passage is not that man can forgive sins that belongs only to God (Isaiah 43:23) but that they should be inspired; that in founding the church (meaning church universal, not just the RC church), and in declaring the will of God, they should be taught by the Holy Spirit to declare on what terms, to what characters, and to what temper of mind God would extend forgiveness of sins. It was not authority to forgive individuals, but to establish in all the churches the terms and conditions on which men might be pardoned, with a promise that God would confirm all that they taught; that all might have assurance of forgiveness who would comply with those terms; and that those who did not comply should not be forgiven, but that their sins should be retained.
This commission is as far as possible from the authority which the Roman Catholic claims of remitting sin and of pronouncing pardon."
I’m sitting in a doctor’s office trying on my phone which is near impossible. Rather than answering your questions now and this way I would ask you to ask your questions of the verses I cited. What do they really mean?
You must read Scripture in light of Scripture. You can take isolated verses and draw all kinds of faulty conclusions. The priesthood was done away with. It’s an old thing that passed away. Just like all of the old Levitical system, it was a shadow but Christ is the substance. Every aspect of the old dead system pointed to Christ. Why go to a man today when you can go to Christ!