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To: Godebert
Note the reference to Natural Law in the first sentence of our Declaration of Independence. It is crystal clear that the Founding Fathers used the Natural Law definition of 'natural born Citizen' when they wrote Article II.

Since "Natural Law" refers to rights and privileges granted by God and not by virtue of any grant from any government, how can you reconcile the fact that Indians and Slaves were not included in the definition of Natural Born Citizen at the time of the Constitution?

Did God have a problem with slaves and Indians? Since it is claimed that through the Laws of Nature all men are created equal, did God somewhere determine that these specific peoples were not men?

95 posted on 01/12/2016 6:03:25 PM PST by P-Marlowe (Tagline pending.)
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To: P-Marlowe
In regards to slavery, their condition was an unnatural one created by men not God. Both Indians and Slaves weren't citizens at all. Hard to be a natural born citizen to non-citizen parents.
96 posted on 01/12/2016 8:36:14 PM PST by Electric Graffiti (DEPORT OBOLA VOTERS)
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To: P-Marlowe

Strawman.


98 posted on 01/13/2016 1:02:12 AM PST by Godebert
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