As John has already pointed out, you are contradicting yourself.
A Constitutional Amendment is, by definition, the Constitution.
If an Amendment conflicts with an earlier version of the Constitution, the Amendment is the last word on the subject.
By your rationale, the 21st Amendment didn't repeal the 18th Amendment, and I don't know anyone sane that would agree with that.
I beg to differ. A 100% ‘income tax’ (IT) IS the definition of slavery (vs. 13th). A graduated IT is slavery...to degrees.
So, unless you’re trying to argue the 16th (in invisible ink, or some lawyer nuance/penumbra) supersedes the 4th, 5th, 13th+, it is still constrained by the same Amendments.
Sorry, but, IMO, you can’t have it both ways.