did they actually write law for them? Or did the government declare the opinion they came to as law without congressional vote?
The Court, in this decision, holds same-sex couples may exercise the fundamental right to marry in all States. It follows that the Court also must hold - and it now does hold - that there is no lawful basis for a State to refuse to recognize a lawful same-sex marriage performed in another State on the ground of its same-sex character. - Obergefell
Here is the error:
The Court, in this decision, holds same-sex couples may exercise the fundamental right to marry in all States.
This goes too far. This commandeers the legislative process of the States. The federal government has no say in marriage laws, laws which have always been within the purview of the States. No court, least of all the USSC, has the authority to legislate.
There may be a legitimate Art IV basis for the USSC declaration that there is no lawful basis for a State to refuse to recognize a lawful same-sex marriage performed in another State on the ground of its same-sex character, although I am not convinced. This would strike Ky. Rev. Stat. 402.045 Same-sex marriage in another jurisdiction void and unenforceable, but it does not touch other provisions of Kentuckys marriage statutes.
Kentucky can not be forced to issue marriage licenses contrary to its laws, or to have its laws written for them by the federal Supreme Court.