Replies

To: Las Vegas Ron; TexasCajun

Texas is correct. .8% is less than 1 out of 100.
2 out of 40 is the same as 1 out of 20, which is 5%.

1/20 = x/100 -> 20x=100, x=5

53 posted on 08/29/2015 8:51:41 AM PDT by EEGator

To: EEGator

Well if you multiply 2 x .40 you get .8!

Of course you DON’T do that! You do it your way using algebra. Or you can ask what is 10% of 40=4 and divide by 2, 10%/2= 5%

The check is multiplying 40 by .05. The answer is....2

62 posted on 08/29/2015 9:26:12 AM PDT by BatGuano (You don't think I'd go into combat with loose change in my pocket, do ya?)

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