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To: Nero Germanicus

‘According to the Dred Scott decision, blacks, whether free or enslaved, could not be citizens and had never been citizens. Were blacks “under the jurisdiction” of the United States prior to 1868?
We are talking at cross purposes. You are discussing citizenship and I am discussing non-citizens being under the jurisdiction of the United States, meaning subject to our laws.’

Can you think of any possible difference between a slave owned by a US citizen and a foreign invader?

Any difference at all?


102 posted on 08/30/2015 7:44:20 AM PDT by Fantasywriter (Any attempt to do forensic work using Internet artifacts is fraught with pitfalls. JoeProbono)
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To: Fantasywriter

Yes.


103 posted on 08/30/2015 10:36:24 AM PDT by Nero Germanicus
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