Nathanbedford:
Anyone who immigrated subsequent to 1863 and their descendants would be exempt from the process.
I think the point Nathan Bedford was making is your comment on “anyone emigrating after 1863 and their descendants” still clarifies nothing without detailed genealogical records.
Example: my husband’s family only talked about being second generation Italians, because of his mother. Thus, disqualifying him from having to pay to slaves, right? But then we look at his dad’s family, and there are more late 19th century/early 20th century immigrants, but then we find a solitary link...back to the coastal regions of Va in 1639 (the hotbed of colonial slavery).
Does it matter if 95% of your ancestors were late-comers to the US if you have one potential slave owner?
Imagine: just going back to the early 1800’s, regardless of where your family was at the time, you’d have over 100 great-great-great-great-great (give or take a great) grandparents. Would you need proof that each of these individuals (and then back to the early half of the 1600’s when the US first began to import slaves) was slave free?
Think the IRS employs lots of people? Just imagine the Department of Genealogy!
Then to go further: if someone fought (and died= extra negative points?) in the Civil War on the Union side, how many potential slave owning ancestors can that wipe out.
The entire thing is a farce that is merely red meat to wave in front of the BLM crowd.
“Anyone who immigrated subsequent to 1863 and their descendants would be exempt from the process.”
Damn you! My mother’s side got here in 1635 and was living in Texas during the war.