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To: oblomov

The only answer I have ever read to that question is no. How could it even be attempted? I don’t have a clue. I was in France as a young sailor at a time when they actually had two currencies in circulation at the same time, “old francs” and “new francs” I believe the ratio was five to one with one new being worth five old. Everything was priced in new francs and if you only had old francs you paid five times as many for the same thing. When converting dollars to francs you might get old or new but if new you would get only one fifth as many as old. It all worked out to the same thing in the end, I never figured out what the point of it all was.


27 posted on 07/22/2015 10:08:15 AM PDT by RipSawyer (Racism is racism, regardless of the race of the racist.)
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To: RipSawyer

In January 1960 the French franc was revalued, with 100 existing francs making one nouveau franc.

To offset massive inflation due to government money printing.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/French_franc#New_franc


30 posted on 07/22/2015 10:44:18 AM PDT by george76 (Ward Churchill : Fake Indian, Fake Scholarship, and Fake Art)
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To: RipSawyer

Did they have coinage for both? Or just printed bills?


31 posted on 07/22/2015 10:45:32 AM PDT by FreedomPoster (Islam delenda est)
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