“Same with slavery. Maybe 4.8% of the people in the South owned slaves. But those people had spouses and children who all gained from that person owning the slave.”
No, they didn’t. Ridiculous conclusion.
Ridiculous how? Ridiculous in that no slave holders had spouses and families? Or ridiculous in that those family members got no benefit from the slaves?
What is ridiculous about it? Did Scarlett O’Hara benefit from slavery?