Were they married to the women? It is my understanding that American Law going all the way back to old English Common law recognizes the Children of Marriage to be the Husband's Children, even if they are not.
In the Time of Old English law, there was no way to tell, but now their is. This is an aspect of law that needs to be seriously revisited in light of advancements in fields other than law. (Where there is never any "advancement.")
I read in a German paper that researchers there estimate that 10% of all children born in wedlock are not the husband’s children.
Yes they were both married to unfaithful women. Seems common law has been abandoned everywhere but this area.