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To: okie01
If the Senate already has the Constitutional authority to ratify a treaty but they are requesting, via this bill, for the authority to review the arrangement with Iran, they have tacitly accepted that said arrangement is not a treaty.

1. There is no "if". The Senate has the authority.

2. Since when did the action of any legislative body become a "request"?

3. How is the power to define the word "treaty" ceded to the Excutive? Does not the co-equal Legislative have the same power?

#3 sums up my interest in the matter as a way for Congress to assert it Constitutional role.

101 posted on 04/19/2015 9:45:47 AM PDT by don-o (He will not share His glory and He will NOT be mocked! Blessed be the name of the Lord forever!)
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To: don-o
You realize you're addressing your questions to the wrong party.

Bob Corker and Mitch McConnell are the guys you need to talk to.

104 posted on 04/19/2015 9:53:03 AM PDT by okie01
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