[SZonian]

Why did Coke have the “coke” removed?

http://wings.buffalo.edu/aru/preprohibition.htm

[ConservingFreedom]

addiction was low and declining in post-Civil War America: "In 1880 [...] there were over 400,000 opium addicts in the U.S. [...] By 1900, about one American in 200 was either a cocaine or opium addict." (http://web.archive.org/web/20110529221013/http://www.justice.gov/dea/demand/speakout/06so.htm) 400,000 in a population of 50M is one in 125 - ergo, between 1880 and 1900 addiction declined.

Why did Coke have the “coke” removed?

Not because of any epidemic of cocaine addiction (whatever nanny-staters of the day may have claimed).