So you are indeed trashing the Constitution, specifically the original meaning of the Commerce Clause and the Tenth Amendment, just so you can have your drug war. Here's a real world example =>
Not long after the decision in Raich, the Court vacated a lower court decision in United States v. Stewart and remanded it to the court of appeals for reconsideration in light of Raich. In Stewart, the Ninth Circuit had held that Congress lacked the Commerce Clause power to criminalize the possession of homemade machine guns.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gonzales_v._Raich
“You cannot have it both ways. If the Commerce Clause applies to intrastate marijuana regulation, it applies to all other regulations of intrastate commerce.”
Not sure where you are heading with your argument. “To regulate Commerce with foreign Nations, and among the several States”. What pray tell does “among the several states” mean based on your “interpretation”? Are you saying that Congress doesn’t have the power to regulate drugs passing between states or through states, regardless of origin?