Seen that one before. Somebody would to interpret it for me as to what it means as far as prevalence in Central America vs.US and other countries.
In the meantime, in the US, fewer than 1 case per year from the time the virus was discovered until the recent outbreak. This would indicate the virus is far more prevalent in Central and South America than it has been in the US, up until the same time frame that 'unaccompanied illegal immigrant" children were admitted wholesale into the US and distributed over the country.
Again, correlation, but a tighter fit. Investigating to find out specific subclades of the virus would perhaps tie that down to specific groups or regions, but evidence tends to indicate that the virus came in with the illegal children and was distributed with them. Occam's Razor, and all that...