BEA defines a recession as two consecutive quarters of negative YOY growth.
If a hypothetical year ended at 15,000,000,000,000, and the first quarter of the next year ended at 14,700,000,000 then that would be a 2% decline.
If the 2nd quarter of that hypothetical year also ended at 14,700,000,000 would that also be a 2% decline from that 15,000,000,000,000? Or would it be zero growth, zero decline since it would be the same number?