He violated the terms I posted in #34, which means that the clause I posted in #8 pertains as one of the stated reasons that they can force a sale.
What “contractual obligations” are you saying he violated?
He had the team ready to play, competitively, at the place and time they were designated to be at, at the time they were designated to be there.
You “believe” there is something about the “best interest of the game” involved? Do better next time.