No sweeping generalizations are correct; they are automatically logical fallacies.
Farm subsidy is a very highly controversial matter. How can any conservative be for it? The colonies and USA did without farm subsidy for a number of centuries, and then subsidization started slowly, going back to 1922, rising to the level they are at today.
The Communist Manifesto is specific when it states “(c)ombining agriculture with industrial production”. This has not been the case for most farming practices in the USA until the end of WWII, and the subsidized industrialization thereof has come in with the shift to the left of US politics in general. Thanks to this, food prices are permanently distorted and dependence on both subsidy and industrialization have made farming very precarious.
Can you or can you not point to even one farm in the U.S. and how it has “embraced the communistic methods of industrialization”?
If you cannot cite a single example for examination then what in the world are you talking about?