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To: MamaTexan

“It was to conform with the grandfather clause in the Constitution, that’s why they repealed it 5 years later and changed the ‘natural born’ language to read citizen of the United States.”

Just your opinion but not fact.


390 posted on 10/29/2013 9:42:15 PM PDT by CodeToad (Liberals are bloodsucking ticks. We need to light the matchstick to burn them off. -786 +969)
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To: CodeToad
Just your opinion but not fact.

It is a FACT the 1790 Act said 'natural born citizen'.

It is a FACT the The Naturalization Act of 1795 repealed the 1790 Act.

It is a FACT the phrase 'natural born' was replaced with Citizen of the United States.

While the purpose of the change might be speculatory, the FACT is that is was changed.

-----

Do you seriously think they all decided that while they were busy establishing embassies, writing public laws, funding the government, passing bills, appointing diplomats, providing for forts, ports and arsenals, and basically establishing the entire foundation for the federal government......they figured they'd take a little time to replace a term with one that 'meant' the exact same thing?

The Founders were Masters of the written word, so such a spurious purpose is nonsensical in the extreme. The only logical conclusion would be that the changing of the language was a purposeful act -

just like the usage of the 2 different terms in the Constitution was.

423 posted on 10/30/2013 5:52:13 AM PDT by MamaTexan (Due to the newly adopted policy at FR, every post I make may be my last.)
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