Anyone know if the “Voting Rights Act” applies to Hispanics, or just to Blacks?
Texas is 38% Hispanic, and just 12% Black, which is actually less than the Black national average of 13%.
If “VRA” does apply to Hispanics, that raises some interesting questions about how federal agencies categorize Hispanics.
In general, the federal government classifies “Hispanics” as “White” any time that makes “White Americans” look bad.
For instance, the FBI classifies “Hispanic” crime perpetrators as “White.”
Thus, all “Hispanic” murderers become “White” murderers.
Also, the National Institutes of Health classify “Hispanics” as “White” in their health statistics.
American “Hispanics” are less healthy than “White” Americans.
Thus, when the health of “White” Americans is compared to “White” Europeans who have national health insurance, the results are skewed, unfairly, in favor of national health insurance.
Also, the Census Bureau keeps two sets of books for American “Hispanics.”
For instance, in Texas, the Census Bureau claims that 81% of the residents are “White.”
But, further down the page, the Census Bureau says that only 45% of Texas residents are “White Only, Not Hispanic Or Latino.”
I’m going to guess that when it comes to “Affirmative Action Quotas” and “Voting Rights Quotas” the federal government moves ALL the Hispanics from the “White” category into the “Hispanic” category!
Hispanics are counted as “white” when they commit crimes and as minorities when they are the victim.