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Government power is derived by the consent of the governed. That is why our Constitution is very specific about the powers granted to the government. Unlike European Democracy, the power of the government is derived from the power taken from the Monarchy. And the Monarchy had absolute power.

Why do I bring this up? When the Founders drafted the Constitution the did not consent to give it the people's income. They did not approve of a federal income tax. They well understood that this power in essence gave the government all of the people's income and then it was the government that gave it back in the amounts they did not tax. Clearly, a group of men dedicated to life, liberty and property, did not think it was a good idea to hand the federal government the income of the people.

One might say that I am crazy. The 16th amendment only gives power to levy taxes on income, it says nothing that income is the property of government?

If that is true, tell me where congress is forbidden to take 100% of income. Hint it is not and marginal tax rates have in the past been 90%

And if true that income is not the property of the government why isn't due process not fully in effect with tax code compliance. The IRS can put a lien on your house without a judgement.

In matters of tax, throw out the Judicial system, the IRS has its own system of Administrative Courts.

Forget about equal protection- the government can tax you at one rate and your neighbor at a lower rate. Note, the constitution original taxing powers went to great lengths to insure equality of taxes levied.

How about the 5th amendment- try not signing a tax return based on self incrimination and see how far that gets you.

All these are examples that when it comes to matters of your personal income, it is clearly not yours. The government has structured the tax code and behaves in a matter well outside the constitutional limits placed on the government.