In this case there is no claim that officers witnessed the felony. There is no claim that they were in hot pursuit of a felon. Do you think perhaps that your statement is so overly-broad that it constitutes misinformation and might be completely false in this case?
Why do you think the police force in this case is willing to consider an apology? Why would they do that if they didn't need a warrant?
“In this case there is no claim that officers witnessed the felony. There is no claim that they were in hot pursuit of a felon. Do you think perhaps that your statement is so overly-broad that it constitutes misinformation and might be completely false in this case?”
Police do not have to witness a felony (or be in hot pursuit) to make an arrest; they need probable cause.
Whether my state constitutes misinformation; here is what I was responding to:
‘warrant not issued until after the fact, thus no authority to arrest’.
I pointed out that ‘Police do not need a warrant for an arrest in a felony’. Feel free to decide which is the more accurate.