It's clear even from that context of that particular sentence that he was referring to INDIANS IN TRIBES when he made that remark.
No, he used Indians in Tribes as an example. We know this for a fact because subsequent federal statute says the same thing: "not subject to any foreign power." And then goes on to be sure to specifically exclude "Indians not taxed."
They are not one and the same.
http://books.google.com/books?id=krYnAQAAMAAJ&pg=PA350